AKT Blue Cluster Quiz

Knowledge quiz
Questions 2
Criteria 60% to pass
Difficulty Easy
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A 55-year-old man with long-standing intermittent allergic rhinitis attends in March for a repeat prescription of cetirizine. He has developed worsening nasal obstructive symptoms, pain and occasional unilateral epistaxis. Which is the SINGLE MOST appropriate NEXT management step? Select ONE option only.

A 10-year-old boy presents with a 48-hour history of sore throat, and you wish to take an evidence-based approach to his assessment and management. Using the Centor clinical scoring system, which ONE of the following criteria will support the likelihood of his symptoms being due to infection with group A beta-haemolytic streptococcus (GABHS)? Select ONE option only.

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